THE EPISTLE TO THE ROMANS - Chapter 3 - Verse 10

Verse 10. As it is written. The apostle is reasoning with Jews; and he proceeds to show, from their own Scriptures, that what he had affirmed was true. The point to be proved was, that the Jews, in the matter of justification, had no advantage or preference over the Gentiles; that the Jew had failed to keep the law which had been given him, as the Gentile had failed to keep the law which had been given him; and that both therefore were equally dependent on the mercy of God, incapable of being justified and saved by their works. To show this the apostle adduces texts, to show what was the character of the Jewish people; or to show that, according to their own Scriptures, they were sinners no less than the Gentiles. The point then is, to prove the depravity of the Jews, not that of universal depravity. The interpretation should be confined to the bearing of the passages on the Jews, and the quotations should not be adduced as directly proving the doctrine of universal depravity. In a certain sense, which will be stated soon, they may be adduced as bearing on that subject. But their direct reference is to the Jewish nation. The passages which follow are taken from various parts of the Old Testament. The design of this is to show, that this characteristic of sin was not confined to any particular period of the Jewish history, but pertained to them as a people; that it had characterized them throughout their existence as a nation. Most of the passages are quoted in the language of the Septuagint. The quotation in Ro 3:10-12, is from Ps 14:1-3, and from Ps 53:1-3. The fifty-third psalm is the same as the fourteenth, with some slight variations.

There is none righteous. The Hebrew (Ps 14:1) is, there is none that doeth good. The Septuagint has the same. The apostle quotes according to the sense of the passage. The design of the apostle is to show that none could be justified by the law. He uses an expression, therefore, which is exactly conformable to his argument, and which accords in meaning with the Hebrew, there is none just—dikaiov.

No, not one. This is not in the Hebrew, but is in the Septuagint. It is a strong universal expression, denoting the state of almost universal corruption which existed in the time of the psalmist. The expression should not be interpreted to mean that there was not literally one pious man in the nation; but that the characteristic of the nation was, at that time, that it was exceedingly corrupt. Instead of being righteous, as the Jew claimed, because they were Jews, the testimony of their own Scriptures was, that they were universally wicked.

{r} "There is none righteous" Ps 14; Ps 53